Thursday, September 6, 2007
In
your Mirror of Justice post, “What does it mean to be a Catholic?”,
you ask:
Clearly
, at some point, rejection of Vatican teachings separates one from the Church.
Have most American Catholics already done so according to Father Araujo?
This
is a very interesting question, but not one that is likely to lead to very good
discussion or reliable answers. The psychological cost of answering “yes”
is too great. If one were to answer yes, that would seem to make the
person quite judgmental and self-righteous. Most people do not want to
feel that way, and certainly they do not want to be perceived in that
way. Thus, you cannot expect many “yes” answers.
Accordingly, you cannot have much confidence in your “no” answers,
which might be the product of dishonesty or rationalization/denial.
I
don’t know what the answer is for others; I can only judge myself (and
even that, imperfectly). In doing so, I would ask, first, are the
teachings in question “definitive”, and second, am I “knowingly
and obstinately repudiating” them? I am not a theologian, so I do
not know the answer to the first question. I assume that the Church’s
teachings on the core sex-related issues (divorce, homosexual relations,
masturbation, contraception, abortion, etc.) are, but there are many non-sexual
issues which may not be so clear. So, if I disagree with the Church, I
ask myself whether I am “knowingly” repudiating the Church’s
teachings. Obviously, the answer at this point would be yes. (If I
know it’s definitive, then my repudiation is clearly “knowing”.)
Then I ask whether I am “obstinately” repudiating them. I
answer that question by considering whether I insist that I am right,
regardless of what the Church teaches? If so, then I am probably obstinately
repudiating the Church’s teachings. On the other hand, if I merely do
not understand how the Church is correct, but leave myself open to the possibility
of correction and pray for understanding, then I probably am not obstinately
repudiating the Church. (This process has led me to withhold “final”
judgment when I might otherwise disagree with the Church.)
So
far, so good. The real tough part comes when I know the Church’s clear
position on an issue and cannot agree with it. Although I leave myself
open to the possibility of correction and pray for understanding, I do not, in
good faith, believe the conduct to be wrong. How am I to act? I know
that the Church would say that I should refrain from the conduct in
question. But I may not have the will or strength to do so – especially
given that I do not share the conviction that it is wrong. I think THIS
is the real issue: not whether I agree or disagree, but how I act upon my disagreement.
I am pretty sure that the Church’s answer would be that I must refrain
from receiving communion if I engage in the conduct in question.
I
won’t judge anyone else, because I cannot read their minds and
hearts. But I know myself. I am a sinner. I’m not proud
of it, but I also am not squeemish about admitting an obvious truth. And
when I am sinning, I hope the Church – as teacher – will let me
know. I also hope that theologians (and others) won’t obfuscate the
matter.
I
wouldn’t go so far as to say that I’ve ever “separated myself
from the Church,” because I always attend mass and consider myself to be
a Catholic, however imperfect. But there are times – indeed, long periods
of time – when I cannot, in good faith, receive communion. At least,
not without confession. It would not strike me as implausible that others
might reach the same conclusion from time to time.
But,
as I mentioned in the beginning, asking whether “most American Catholics”
should avoid communion is probably not the best idea.
Regards,
Julian
Velasco
Associate
Professor of Law
University
of Notre Dame
211
Law School
P.O.
Box 780
Notre
Dame, IN 46556-0780
I use the imprecise term the "Vatican" teaches instead of the "Church" teaches because I do not believe that teachings of Church leaders are necessarily teachings of the Church. I use the term Vatican as a placeholder for any belief that could count as a teaching of the magisterium. First, as I said in a prior post, "Related to this issue is the
question of what counts as a teaching of the Church. If the Church is the
People of God with the hierarchy playing an important leadership role, what is
the status of hierarchal teachings that are not
accepted by the faithful (recognizing that the question of what counts as
acceptance could be very difficult to ascertain on some issues and easy on
others)? I am unsure. Consider this passage from Lumen Gentium, “The entire body of the faithful, anointed as they are
by the Holy One,(111) cannot err in matters of belief. They manifest this
special property by means of the whole peoples' supernatural discernment in
matters of faith when "from the Bishops down to the last of the lay
faithful" (8*) they show universal agreement in matters of faith and
morals. That discernment in matters of faith is aroused and sustained by the
Spirit of truth. It is exercised under the guidance of the sacred teaching
authority, in faithful and respectful obedience to which the people of God
accepts that which is not just the word of men but truly the word of God.(112).”
Second, as I said in another post, Of course, whatever the degree of
authoritativeness of the objective conscience view, it does not purport to be
an infallible teaching of the Church, and the issue before us is the degree to
which one is required to assent to such teachings. There is a pastoral issue
here that I think is of great importance. Father Sullivan, Magisterium:
Teaching Authority in the Catholic Church 171-72, makes this point
extremely well in my opinion:
“I am convinced that it is
important for Catholics to be aware of the difference between infallible and
non-infallible teaching by the magisterium, and of the corresponding difference
between the kinds of assent that each of them calls for. Ignorance of these
differences can have several unhappy consequences. One is that Catholics who
have actually fulfilled their obligation to practice docility regarding such
teaching, and have been really unable to give their interior assent to it, may
still feel themselves guilty of disobedience to the pope because they do not
follow his teaching on a particular point. Another is that Catholics who do
accept such teaching may judge all others who do not, to be disobedient or
disloyal, and may be scandalized to know that even priests or theologians have
reservations about certain points of ordinary papal teaching.
“The tendency to obscure the
difference between the infallible and the non-infallible exercise of
magisterium, by treating papal encyclicals as though they were practically
infallible, has, I believe, been largely responsible for the fact that many
people, when they learn that encyclicals are not infallible after all, jump to
the conclusion that one need pay no attention to them. If people have been led
to think of the infallibility of the pope as the basic motive for giving their
assent to his teaching, it is not surprising that when this motive is no longer
available, their assent will fail as well.”
Prompted by Steve Shiffrin's most recent post, I'm finally going to pose a question that's been on (and off) my mind for more than a season. What do you mean, Steve, when you say "the Vatican teaches" or "the Vatican says" or "the Vatican teaching on?" Also, what do others mean when they use these and similar expressions?
Nothing is signed "the Vatican." What happens if we substitute the real signatories for "the Vatican?" Does this create problems for Steve's (or others') positions on authority, obedicence, etc?